Our review is designed to help you maximize your score on the Dermatology Board Exam. StatPearls questions and articles are linked directly to American Osteopathic Board of Dermatology® and American Board of Dermatology® content outlines. Each review course is designed to empower you to assess your knowledge and understanding of medical principles and concepts found on the Dermatology Board Exam.
About the Question Bank
We have 2,259 Multiple-choice 1st, 2nd, and 3rd order questions with four detailed teaching points linked to 679 PubMed indexed review articles related to the Dermatology Examination. You can customize practice questions to anatomical and clinical Dermatologist subject areas. In addition, you will have access to a 250 question pre- and post-test Dermatology Board Exam to help you target learning and identify areas that need further study. Analytics and reports allow you to compare your scores to other students.
Achieve top scores
The StatPearls dermatology questions, dermatology review preparation questions, and dermatology board questions will help you achieve a top score on the Dermatology Examination. 552 authors and 17 editors have contributed to the development of the Dermatology Board Exam content, which is continuously refined and updated to improve your learning experience.
Dermatology Board Exam Overview
How many hours is the Dermatology Board Exam?
The Dermatology Board Exam is 8 hours.
How many questions is the Dermatology Board Exam?
The Dermatology Board Exam is 300 questions.
What topics are covered on the Dermatology Board Exam?
Topics include: General Dermatology Visual Recognition - 20%, General Dermatology - 30%, Pediatric Dermatology - 12.5%, Surgical Dermatology - 12.5%, Dermatopathology - 12.5%, Research - 12.5%
Dermatology Board Exam MCQs (2,259)
Our question bank for the Dermatology Board Exam covers four Cognitive Difficulty Levels:
- Allergy and Immunology - 216 questions
- Cardiovascular - 53 questions
- Connective Tissue - 127 questions
- Ears Nose and Throat - 78 questions
- Endocrine and Metabolic - 66 questions
- Eyes - 71 questions
- Gastrointestinal - 93 questions
- Genetics - 157 questions
- Genitourinary - 80 questions
- Growth and Development - 42 questions
- Gynecologic - 40 questions
- Hematologic - 75 questions
- Infectious - 501 questions
- Integument - 2317 questions
- Musculoskeletal - 134 questions
- Nervous - 95 questions
- Nutrition - 30 questions
- Obstetric - 30 questions
- Oncologic - 393 questions
- Psychiatric Mental Health - 29 questions
- Pulmonary - 53 questions
- Renal - 31 questions
- Surgery - 108 questions
- Toxicology - 79 questions
- Trauma - 21 questions
- Manage Care and Comply Regulations - 16 questions
- Promote Safety and Minimize Infection - 9 questions
- Health Promotion & Maintenance (Prevent Problems) - 22 questions
- Basic Care and Comfort (Assist Daily Living Tasks) - 6 questions
- Pharm/Parenteral Therapy (Drugs/Vital Signs) - 173 questions
- Reduction Risk (Post Procedure) - 7 questions
- Physiological Adaptation (Care Ill Patients) - 536 questions
- Psychosocial (Mental Health Patient/Family) - 8 questions
- Process (Analysis, Assess, Eval, Implement, Plan) - 653 questions
- Caring (Hope and Support) - 2 questions
- Communication/Documentation (Oral, Written, EMR) - 2 questions
- Teaching/Learning (Promotes Behavior Change) - 4 questions
- Culture/Spiritualilty (Beliefs, Practices, Ethics) - 1 questions
- Causes - 1022 questions
- Classification - 248 questions
- Differential - 1323 questions
- Epidemiology - 97 questions
- Evaluation Diagnostic Tests - 626 questions
- Evaluation Lab - 442 questions
- Evaluation Monitoring - 47 questions
- Evaluation Nuclear Medicine - 2 questions
- Evaluation Procedures - 524 questions
- Evaluation Radiologic - 91 questions
- Health Maint Prevention Public Health - 29 questions
- History Physical - 2362 questions
- Legal - 2 questions
- Pathophysiology - 1083 questions
- Patient Education - 101 questions
- Prognosis Complications - 943 questions
- Toxicology - 59 questions
- Treatment Medical - 796 questions
- Treatment Occupation/Physical Therapy - 1 questions
- Treatment Prehospital - 3 questions
- Treatment Radiation - 13 questions
- Treatment Rehabilitation - 4 questions
- Treatment Surgical - 216 questions
- Healthcare Ethics - 1 questions
- Clinical Education - 16 questions
- Therapeutics (Drug treatment) - 142 questions
- Drug Information - 151 questions
- Pharmaceutics (Safely dosing medications) - 64 questions
- Pharmacokinetics (Drug movement in body) - 3 questions
Dermatology Board Exam Articles (679)
Oral mucosal cancer is cancer that arises from the lining (mucosa) of the oral cavity. The oral cavity is compromised of the mucosa lining of the l ...
Scars are the result of the cutaneous wound healing process that leads to fibrosis and altered skin morphology. All wounds heal with some degree of ...
Oral cutaneous fistulas (OCF) are infrequent conditions in which there is a pathologic communication between the oral cavity and the skin. In medic ...
Erythema marginatum is reactive inflammatory erythema seen most commonly in association with acute rheumatic fever. Although a rare cutaneous manif ...
Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans (ACA) is a late and chronic manifestation of Lyme borreliosis (LB). ACA predominantly involves the distal porti ...
Melanoma is a skin cancer of the melanocytes that occurs after DNA mutation, most often secondary to excess sun exposure. Fair-skinned and light-ha ...
Incision and drainage (I&D) is a widely used procedure in various care settings, including emergency departments and outpatient clinics. I ...
Clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue (CCSST) is an exceedingly rare tumor that originates from neural crest cells and is histologically character ...
Scleroderma is a connective tissue disorder characterized primarily by the thickening and hardening of the skin. The combining form “sclero&r ...
Stewart-Treves syndrome was first described when Drs. Fred Stewart and Norman Treves reported a case series describing 6 patients with lymphangiosa ...
“Chigger” is the common name for species of the Trombiculid family of mites. Bites from the larva of these mites can cause local prurit ...
Vitiligo is an acquired pigmentary skin disorder by the absence of pigmentary cells from the epidermis that results in white macules and patches on ...
Cockayne syndrome, first described in 1936 by Dr. Cockayne, is a rare genetic disorder, mainly characterized by growth disorders, intellectual defi ...
In hyperbaric medicine, healthcare professionals must understand that the approved indications are not common knowledge amongst those that do not p ...
Donovanosis or “granuloma inguinale” is a bacterial infection of the genital region. It is chronic and progressive. Genital ulcers attr ...
Jonathan S Crane DO Dermatology Residency Program Director Sampson Regional Med Ctr / Campbell Univ FAAD, FAOCD Wilmington NC
Shyam B Verma MBBS, DVD Consultant Nirvan Skin Clinic FRCP (London), FAAD, Vadodara AL
Amanda M Oakley MB ChB, FRACP, PGDipHealInf Adjunct Associate Professor University of Auckland FNZDS, Honorary Member American Academy of Dermatology, Honorary International Fellow of American Dermatological Association, Honorary Member of Skin Cancer College of Australasia, Honorary Member of MelNet New Zealand Hamilton
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