Our review is designed to help you maximize your score on the ABFAS® Board Certification Exam. StatPearls questions and articles are linked directly to American Board of Foot and Ankle Surgery® (ABFAS®) content outlines. Each review course is designed to empower you to assess your knowledge and understanding of medical principles and concepts found on the ABFAS® Board Certification Exam.
About the Question Bank
We have 510 Multiple-choice 1st, 2nd, and 3rd order questions with four detailed teaching points linked to 319 PubMed indexed review articles related to the Foot and Ankle Podiatry Board Certification Test. You can customize practice questions to anatomical and clinical Podiatrist subject areas. In addition, you will have access to a 250 question pre- and post-test ABFAS® Board Certification Exam to help you target learning and identify areas that need further study. Analytics and reports allow you to compare your scores to other students.
Achieve top scores
The StatPearls podiatry prep questions, podiatry review questions, and podiatry test questions will help you achieve a top score on the Foot and Ankle Podiatry Board Certification Test. 348 authors and 6 editors have contributed to the development of the ABFAS® Board Certification Exam content, which is continuously refined and updated to improve your learning experience.
ABFAS® Board Certification Exam Overview
How many hours is the ABFAS® Board Certification Exam?
The ABFAS® Board Certification Exam is 2 hours.
How many questions is the ABFAS® Board Certification Exam?
The ABFAS® Board Certification Exam is 80 questions.
What topics are covered on the ABFAS® Board Certification Exam?
Topics include: Surgical Principles, Surgical Procedures/Techniques, Procedural Perioperative Management, Complications, and General Medicine
ABFAS® Board Certification Exam MCQs (510)
Our question bank for the ABFAS® Board Certification Exam covers four Cognitive Difficulty Levels:
- Allergy and Immunology - 2 questions
- Cardiovascular - 46 questions
- Connective Tissue - 33 questions
- Ears Nose and Throat - 2 questions
- Endocrine and Metabolic - 20 questions
- Eyes - 2 questions
- Gastrointestinal - 4 questions
- Genetics - 4 questions
- Genitourinary - 3 questions
- Growth and Development - 24 questions
- Gynecologic - 1 questions
- Hematologic - 6 questions
- Infectious - 42 questions
- Integument - 61 questions
- Musculoskeletal - 435 questions
- Nervous - 95 questions
- Nutrition - 1 questions
- Obstetric - 3 questions
- Oncologic - 27 questions
- Psychiatric Mental Health - 3 questions
- Pulmonary - 2 questions
- Renal - 2 questions
- Surgery - 142 questions
- Toxicology - 2 questions
- Trauma - 150 questions
- Manage Care and Comply Regulations - 9 questions
- Promote Safety and Minimize Infection - 3 questions
- Health Promotion & Maintenance (Prevent Problems) - 3 questions
- Basic Care and Comfort (Assist Daily Living Tasks) - 7 questions
- Pharm/Parenteral Therapy (Drugs/Vital Signs) - 10 questions
- Reduction Risk (Post Procedure) - 13 questions
- Physiological Adaptation (Care Ill Patients) - 146 questions
- Process (Analysis, Assess, Eval, Implement, Plan) - 153 questions
- Communication/Documentation (Oral, Written, EMR) - 1 questions
- Teaching/Learning (Promotes Behavior Change) - 2 questions
- Causes - 195 questions
- Classification - 115 questions
- Differential - 247 questions
- Epidemiology - 11 questions
- Evaluation Diagnostic Tests - 78 questions
- Evaluation Lab - 38 questions
- Evaluation Monitoring - 18 questions
- Evaluation Nuclear Medicine - 2 questions
- Evaluation Procedures - 58 questions
- Evaluation Radiologic - 230 questions
- Health Maint Prevention Public Health - 1 questions
- History Physical - 525 questions
- Legal - 1 questions
- Pathophysiology - 236 questions
- Patient Education - 18 questions
- Prognosis Complications - 257 questions
- Toxicology - 2 questions
- Treatment Medical - 114 questions
- Treatment Occupation/Physical Therapy - 27 questions
- Treatment Prehospital - 1 questions
- Treatment Radiation - 2 questions
- Treatment Rehabilitation - 6 questions
- Treatment Surgical - 209 questions
- Healthcare Ethics - 2 questions
- Clinical Education - 17 questions
- Therapeutics (Drug treatment) - 5 questions
- Drug Information - 2 questions
- Pharmaceutics (Safely dosing medications) - 1 questions
ABFAS® Board Certification Exam Articles (319)
Osteoid osteoma was first described by Jaffe in 1935 and accounts for 10% of all benign bone tumors.
Initially described by Dr. Alfred Freiberg in 1914 in a series of 6 patients presenting with a similar infarction pattern affecting the second meta ...
The talocalcaneal coalition is a frequent cause of painful flatfoot in older children or adolescents. The talocalcaneal coalition is an anomalous c ...
There are approximately 29 million people with diabetes in the United States, and approximately 25% of people older the age of 65 have di ...
A herniated disc in the spine is a condition during which a nucleus pulposus is displaced from intervertebral space. It is a common cause of back p ...
As early as 1975, the term floating knee was initially used by Blake and McBryde to describe fractures of the ipsilateral femur and tibia. Fracture ...
Superficial thrombophlebitis is an inflammatory disorder of superficial veins with coexistent venous thrombosis.
Ramipril is an ACE-i (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitor) which is used medically for following different disease processes.
Crutches are medical devices designed to aid in ambulation, by transferring body weight from the legs to the torso and arms.
There have been different procedures described for the treatment of cartilage defects. When the defect is full thickness, the chances of “sel ...
Endovascular papillary angioendothelioma (EPA), also known as Dabska tumor (DT) and papillary intralymphatic angioendothelioma (PILA), represents a ...
Suction drains are appliances used to collect blood, pus, or body fluids. They are active drains that maintain a negative pressure gradient. The co ...
Talar neck fractures are relatively uncommon, but potentially devastating injuries with often life-altering sequelae. The talus is located in the h ...
Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (HOA), consists of the presence of digital clubbing, increased periosteal activity of the tubular bones, arthralgias, ...
Dehiscence is a partial or total separation of previously approximated wound edges, due to a failure of proper wound healing. This scenario typical ...
Dustin Constant DPM Fellow Coordinated Health AACFAS Allentown PA
Melanie Violand DPM Midwestern Un AZ Sch of Podiatric Med FAPWH Glendale AZ
Mark A Dreyer DPM, FACFAS, DABPM, CWSP Intercoastal Medical Group FACFAS, ABPM, ABWM Bradenton FL
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